Adjudicator Professional Certification Practice Test

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• February 20, 1960 is the date associated with which E.O.?
• What is the relationship between vulnerabilities and threats?
• Which are the three domains of Personnel Vetting?
• Which guideline is associated with Criminal Activity?
• How many domains are defined in Personnel Vetting?
• Which policy documents establish and maintain the DOD personnel security policies and procedures?
• Why was the Special Access Program (SAP) established?
• Which act is credited with curing the abuses of the Spoils System?
• What is the SF 312?
• True or False: No investigation can be conducted prior to an individual's 18th birthday.
• Which is NOT listed as a component of the High Tier?
• The Position Designation System primarily determines which factor?
• Which executive order established the National Industrial Security Program?
• Which is not valid proof of U.S. citizenship?
• What did the Civil Service Act of 1883 establish?
• Define the adjudicative process.
• Which case is associated with the denial of national security eligibility based on loyalty concerns?
• Which executive order created new standards for the process of identifying and protecting classified information?
• One-time access authorization is granted to _________?
• In what year was the Freedom of Information Act enacted?
• Which SEAD category corresponds to Reciprocity?
• What are the three types of vulnerabilities?
• What does SecEA stand for?
• Which guideline addresses Financial Considerations?
• True or False: An adjudicator must review ROIs for evidence of investigator bias.
• After an unfavorable determination, how many days does the adjudication facility have to update the system of record to reflect current eligibility?
• The adjudicative guidelines structure includes which of the following as NOT a component?
• Which case restricted civilians to sensitive positions?
• What is the date associated with E.O. 13467?
• Compulsive gambling may be a symptom of a mental health concern.
• Which tiered investigation supports Moderate Risk Public Trust Positions?
• In a DOD national security position designated Special Sensitive, which agency serves as the ISP?
• DISS stands for?
• Which of the following statements is true regarding reporting requirements for someone with Secret information?
• The Personnel Security Program (PSP) aims to ensure which attributes for individuals with access to classified information?
• Which case held that the investigative process is not equivalent to a trial and there is no self-incrimination protection?
• Which statement best aligns with the whole-person concept regarding information used in determinations?
• Which statement best describes Sensitive Compartmented Information (SCI)?
• Which tiered investigation supports High Risk Public Trust Positions?
• What does HSPD-12 stand for?
• Which guideline addresses Outside Activities?
• Fitness adjudication is for industry personnel.
• Which statement about the Bond Amendment is true?
• Which Executive Order amended E.O. 10865?
• What act represents the beginnings of the present-day PSP?
• Which case is significant because it caused the establishment of due process procedures in the DOD PSP?
• Under Continuous Evaluation, which of the following are responsibilities of the employing activity?
• Which guideline addresses Foreign Preference?
• Security briefings are a part of what program?
• Which term describes a briefing conducted when a subject's status changes or ends association?
• What are the two types of threats?
• What does CFR stand for?
• Which guidelines cover Allegiance as an adjudicative issue?
• Which guideline addresses Drug Involvement and Substance Misuse?
• Which case addresses following its own regulations, even if more restrictive than the law requires?
• A case involves a candidate's misuse of prescription stimulants; which guideline applies?
• What does SEAD stand for?
• Simplifying workforce mobility is an improvement implemented under TW 2.0. This statement is:
• The DoD PSP stands for what?
• NACLC stands for?
• Can more than one disqualifying condition apply to a security concern?
• An individual who was dismissed from the Armed Forces for unwillingness to comply with rules and regulations may be a concern under which guideline?
• What is ICD 704?
• ANACI stands for?
• Individuals denied eligibility for access should be provided any documents, records, and reports upon which the denial or revocation is based within ___ days upon request.
• Which Executive Order established security policies designed to protect classified information?
• Which agency verifies U.S. naturalization for foreign-born subjects?
• Which acronym stands for 'Access National Agency Check with Written Inquiries and Credit Check'?
• Which statement best describes 5 CFR Part 732?
• Transferring Responsibility for Background Investigations to the Department of Defense: Which is NOT a type of investigation?
• As a national security adjudicator, you will protect our nation and its government by applying which trio to make unbiased trust determinations?
• The Freedom of Information Act gives the public the right to:
• Which is not an indicator of espionage?
• Which form is the Questionnaire for National Security Positions?
• Which type of threat is associated with individuals within an organization?
• Within how many days of receiving an individual's response to a Statement of Reasons (SOR) should final clearance determinations be made?
• Which of the following is a type of security briefing?
• Which statement best describes the Character adjudicative issue?
• Which guideline addresses Criminal Conduct?
• Which of the following is NOT an example of a public record?
• What does ICPG stand for?
• Which guideline addresses Personal Conduct?
• Which case affirmed that the denial of national security eligibility is based on a judgment call and subject to human error?
• A case concerns alcohol use and its impact on duties; which guideline applies?
• Which statement describes the purpose of the SAP?
• REO stands for?
• Which form is the Questionnaire for Non-Sensitive Positions?
• Who is not authorized to make national security eligibility determinations based upon a review of the PSI or adverse information referral?
• Guideline B addresses which concern?
• Which case is significant because for civilians, it limits the PSP to sensitive positions?
• Which definition best describes Due Process in adjudicative procedures?
• What does PSI stand for?
• Which is not a prohibited area of questioning?
• Which regulation applies to industry and sets eligibility and safeguarding standards for classified information?
• What SMO should always be used for Air Force correspondence, if available?
• Which of the following options correctly lists the components of the Low Tier?
• What are the four major elements of the PSP?
• Which of these is not one of the nine adjudicative factors?
• True or False: Tier 1, Tier 2, and Tier 4 have clearance eligibility.
• Define nolle prosequi.
• What are the four adjudicative issues?
• Which Executive Order established a uniform federal Personnel Security Program for employees considered for initial or continued access to classified information?
• Which tier is described as handling High Risk Public Trust Positions?
• Which statement best describes the PSP's focus on risk?
• What is the primary aim of the Hatch Act?
• A case concerns outside work that could raise conflicts of interest; which guideline applies?
• When evaluating foreclosure, do we look at past due amount or balance?
• Which of the following is a major element of the PSP?
• Which act gave the public the right to access agency records concerning US Government activities?
• Which term refers to a formal explanation provided to an individual about proposed adverse actions?
• What does FIPC stand for?
• What is the Position Designation System (PDS) used to do?
• Which Executive Order has the effective date April 27, 1953?
• Which kind of CVR will an adjudicator not attach to an SIR?
• Which statement about 32 CFR Part 117 is true?
• How is the term threat defined?
• SEAD 7 addresses which concept?
• NBIB stands for?
• Continuous Evaluation requires persons who are authorized access to classified information, or perform sensitive duties, to continually meet certain standards of loyalty, trustworthiness, and reliability.
• Which policy is associated with the DOD Personnel Security Program?
• Which date is associated with E.O. 12968?
• Under Continuous Evaluation, which option correctly reflects the scope of responsibilities?
• Which document governs access to SCI?
• Nolo contendere describes which?
• SEAD 8 relates to which concept?
• In security adjudication, what is the main role of an adjudicator?
• Which guideline addresses Alcohol Consumption?
• Which SEAD directive deals with Whistleblower Protection?
• What is the effective date associated with E.O. 10450?
• Which action is governed by the Privacy Act of 1974?
• What can be expected when top secret information is released?
• Which policy area is covered by E.O. 13764?
• Which term describes a person who is not a citizen of the United States but owes permanent allegiance to the United States?
• Which term best describes an unauthorized attempt to access information?
• If a subject is enrolled in CE, when would they need a new investigation?
• The National Security Act of 1947 established the military Departments under the direction, authority, and control of which officer?
• Which Executive Order focuses on reforming processes related to suitability for government employment, fitness for contractor employees, and eligibility for access to classified information?
• Which of the following is an example of a Special Access Program (SAP)?
• The Scattered Castles database is associated with which ICPG?
• Limited Access Authorization is a clearance type for which group?
• Which of the following is an area that is allowed to be questioned during background checks?
• Which form is used for Public Trust Positions?
• Which guidelines define the Character adjudicative issue?
• Which investigation type is used when adjudicator requires additional investigative information beyond the initial standards?
• TW 2.0 stands for what?
• Use of Information Technology Systems is part of which adjudicative issue?
• What does USD(I&S) stand for?
• What is LAA?
• Which of the following is an exception for granting reciprocity eligibility?
• Which two DOD-specific policies are relevant to our work as national security adjudicators?
• Define RSI.
• SEAD 6 deals with what?
• Which PSI does not support clearance eligibility for military?
• Which type of access is associated with the Low Tier?
• SEAD 3 governs what area?
• What did the Spoils System entail?
• Define nolo contendere.
• An individual with access to Secret information is required to report getting married.
• What does CATS stand for?
• An adjudicator is the custodian of a PSI, not the owner.
• The statement: In the PSP, we are only concerned with those weaknesses that could pose an Unacceptable Risk to National Security.
• Which credit bureaus does DCSA use?
• SSBI stands for?
• Which established guideline for reciprocity requires reciprocity between government agencies?
• What is the National Security Act of 1947?
• Define mitigating conditions.
• Which chapter of bankruptcy is used by people with regular income who want to pay debts?
• Define Continuous Evaluation.
• Which of the following best describes evaluating information for eligibility under the whole-person concept?
• The National Security Act of 1947 established the following as part of its provisions?
• Public Law 110-181, Section 3002 is more commonly known as what?
• What is the waiting period before requesting reconsideration after an unfavorable determination?
• Which of the following acts is NOT listed among the most significant acts in PSP history?
• As basic criteria, which two qualifications are required to review the personal information in a PSI?
• What is the Privacy Act of 1974?
• What does DCII stand for?
• The role of adjudicators and the decisions they make are vital to both national security and which of the following?
• SEAD 9 provides protection for which group?
• According to DSM-5, what is alcohol abuse now called?
• What does IRTPA stand for?
• Can a Subject use multiple short duration accesses within a 12-month period, if necessary?
• Guideline E addresses which area?
• What are the penalties for unauthorized release or disclosure of protected information?
• The beginning of one-time access authorization is normally valid for how many days?
• Guideline A addresses which area?
• Which statement about Interpol searches is accurate?
• What does FPV stand for?
• When was the Bond Amendment signed into law and what did it amend?
• What act ordered the immediate removal of any person advocating the overthrow the United States?
• What does DOHA stand for?
• What is a vulnerability?
• Dismissed bankruptcy term.
• Which tier includes Top Secret and SCI?
• Which tiered investigation does not require re-investigation?
• What does RADAR stand for?
• Which credential is associated with HSPD-12 CAC Credentialing?
• What can be expected when secret information is released?
• Define drug abuse.
• Which of the following is not a common bias?
• LAA cases require a Tier 5 Investigation for adjudication.
• Which of the following is a prohibited investigation technique?
• Permanent residents may be given access to SCI in very special circumstances.
• What is the whole-of-government approach to reform the personnel security process and to establish a single vetting system for the U.S. Government?
• Which statement about the Hatch Act is accurate?
• Which authority governs the collection of personal information by the Federal government?
• The level of a covered individual's investigation is determined by the potential adverse effect the position could have on national security. This statement is:
• Which E.O amended E.O. 13467 and E.O. 13488?
• Which executive order created new standards for identifying and protecting classified information?
• What is the term for a bankruptcy being rejected or the debtor has withdrawn?
• The policy area 'Safeguarding Classified Information within Industry' corresponds to which E.O.?
• What does CVS stand for?
• What is the primary purpose of the USD(I&S) in relation to the DoD PSP?
• Permanent residents may be granted SCI access in very special circumstances.
• Define disqualifying conditions.
• How many days does an agency have to make a reciprocity determination?
• What can be expected when SCI is released?
• Which statement best defines the adjudicative process?
• SEAD 2 is associated with which assessment method?
• Which chapter of bankruptcy is used by corporations?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the five personnel vetting scenarios?
• Nolle prosequi description.
• Which executive order established the National Industrial Security Program (NISP))?
• Which guidelines define the Behavior adjudicative issue?
• SEAD 3 governs which aspect of security adjudication?
• In the context of DCSA, what does T/U stand for?
• A Subject has two separate DISS Incident Reports. When drafting correspondence in the CLW, you will select Multiple Sources.
• What is ICPG 704.5?
• Which items are components of the Moderate Tier?
• SEAD 5 covers which topic?
• Who has the final determination on 'due process' appeals?
• What warrants an Interpol Search?
• What can be expected when confidential information is released?
• A case involves concerns about personal conduct affecting impartiality; which guideline applies?
• Which guideline addresses Psychological Conditions?
• One effect of IRTPA is to streamline the investigative and adjudicative processes for the federal government.
• What does DSS stand for?
• Which statement best describes the emergency appointment justification?
• The beginning of the present-day PSP in the U.S. is based on what Congressional authority?
• What is ICPG 704.6?
• Guideline J covers which type of conduct?
• Which term describes the reciprocity guideline that ensures cooperation across agencies?
• Which is not an example of a Special Access Program (SAP)?
• In risk context, what best describes the relationship between a threat and a vulnerability?
• Tier 1 is described as 'former NACI'. Which of the following is the correct association?
• Which domain focuses on reliability and trustworthiness for government service?
• An individual with access to Secret information is required to report receiving an inheritance of $10,000.
• Define the whole-person concept.
• Which Executive Order established the SecEA and designated the DNI as the SecEA?
• The adjudication facility is best described as which of the following?
• An individual with access to Secret information is required to report being contacted by the media when classified information was sought.
• What does PPR stand for?
• Final adjudication of national security determinations is conducted where?
• Define concern in adjudicative guidelines.
• Which case ruled that falsification of information, regardless of intent, is grounds for denial of national security eligibility?
• Which tiered investigation uses SF-85?
• What is the primary function of the Case Adjudication Tracking System (CATS)?
• Appeals will be reviewed by a high-level panel comprised of at least how many members, and how many must be outside the security field?
• True or False: Unauthorized disclosure from a Non-Sensitive Position will have no material adverse effect on national security.
• What is the primary function of the NBIB?
• The FPV guides the transformative efforts to reform the U.S. government personnel security vetting process.
• What does SII stand for?
• The Adjudicative Guideline for determining eligibility for access to SCI and other controlled access is which document?
• Which policy establishes continuous evaluation requirements for individuals who require continued eligibility?
• Which organization handles the Defense Office of Hearing and Appeals proceedings?
• Which SEAD number governs the collection, use, and retention of social media?
• Which option is NOT a background investigation type?
• SOR stands for which of the following in security adjudication?
• What is the most common vulnerability that is exploited?
• Which of the following is a correct expansion of the acronym SSBI?
• Which of the following is a component of the adjudicative guidelines structure?
• What is the purpose of ICPG 704.3?
• Which statement about mitigating conditions is accurate?
• Which of the following abbreviations corresponds to TransUnion in DCSA terminology?
• Which term best describes a non-citizen who owes permanent allegiance to the United States?
• Any doubt shall be resolved in favor of ______.
• Which case established that the investigative process is not equivalent to a trial and there is no self-incrimination protection?
• What does NACI stand for?
• SEAD 4 refers to which guidelines?
• Which chapter of bankruptcy is the most common?
• In adjudicating drug test results, when would no additional information be required?
• Name the four position sensitivity levels.
• What does IRTPA stand for?
• An adjudicator receives a report that a government employee downloaded sexually explicit material on a government computer. The adjudicator applied Guideline J - Criminal Conduct. Is this appropriate?
• April 24, 2019 is associated with which E.O.?
• Which term describes a background check that combines national agency checks with local agency checks and a credit check?
• In which source document can a list of authorized requesters for PSIs be found?
• Who develops policy, guidance, and oversight for the DoD PSP?
• Which guideline addresses Sexual Behavior?
• Which E.O. was issued on January 17, 2017?
• Which SEAD directive addresses ongoing status monitoring during a clearance process?
• Which case is significant because an agency must follow its own regulations, even when those regulations are more restrictive than the law requires?
• Which E.O establishes that all persons employed by the departments and agencies of the government shall be reliable, trustworthy, of good conduct and character, and of complete and unswerving loyalty to the United States?
• Which Executive Order required an aligned system for all vetting domains?
• Which statement best describes E.O. 13764?
• Which of the following are components of the High Tier?
• Which ICPG covers Personnel Security Investigative Standards for Access to SCI?
• An Emergency Appointment with security clearance may be granted by whom and under what circumstance(s)?
• Which case is associated with the right of the PSP to deny or revoke eligibility due to loyalty concerns?
• Which guideline addresses Handling Protected Information?
• Which case affirmed the right of the PSP to deny or revoke a national security eligibility because of questions about loyalty, trustworthiness, and reliability, with adjudicators not having to prove anything?
• What is 32 CFR Part 117?
• Which form is the Questionnaire for Public Trust Positions?
• Which pairing correctly matches position type with its form?
• Is an adjudicator allowed to release a PSI directly to the Subject?
• Which guidelines define the Health adjudicative issue?
• Which case is most closely associated with due process procedures in the DOD PSP?
• NOT a type of security briefing?
• A command may request ___________ of an unfavorable determination 1 year after the date of the individual's denial/revocation.
• What does the investigating agency use to verify U.S. naturalization for Subjects born in a foreign country?
• Who is the ANACI conducted on?
• Which bankruptcy chapter is used by people with regular income who want to pay debts?
• Which combination of acts is considered most significant to the history of the Personnel Security Program?
• Which E.O. requires that the level of a covered individual's investigation be determined by the potential adverse effect the position could have on national security?
• Which statement best describes the grounds for denial or revocation of a clearance under the Bond Amendment?